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CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q56-Q61):
NEW QUESTION # 56
An HBsAb-negative employee has a percutaneous exposure to blood from a Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positive patient. Which of the following regimens is recommended for this employee?
- A. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) alone
- B. Immune serum globulin and hepatitis B vaccine
- C. Hepatitis B vaccine alone
- D. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and hepatitis B vaccine
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, "Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and hepatitis B vaccine," as this is the recommended regimen for an HBsAb-negative employee with a percutaneous exposure to blood from an HBsAg-positive patient. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for hepatitis B virus (HBV) exposure depends on the employee's vaccination status and the source's HBsAg status. For an unvaccinated or known HBsAb-negative individual (indicating no immunity) exposed to HBsAg-positive blood, the standard PEP includes both HBIG and the hepatitis B vaccine. HBIG provides immediate passive immunity by delivering pre-formed antibodies, while the vaccine initiates active immunity to prevent future infections (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents). The HBIG should be administered within 24 hours of exposure (preferably within 7 days), and the first dose of the vaccine should be given concurrently, followed by the complete vaccine series.
Option A (immune serum globulin and hepatitis B vaccine) is incorrect because immune serum globulin (ISG) is a general immunoglobulin preparation and not specific for HBV; HBIG, which contains high titers of anti-HBs, is the appropriate specific immunoglobulin for HBV exposure. Option B (hepatitis B immune globulin [HBIG] alone) is insufficient, as it provides only temporary passive immunity without initiating long- term active immunity through vaccination, which is critical for an unvaccinated individual. Option C (hepatitis B vaccine alone) is inadequate for immediate post-exposure protection, as it takes weeks to develop immunity, leaving the employee vulnerable in the interim.
The recommendation for HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine aligns with CBIC's emphasis on evidence-based post- exposure management to prevent HBV transmission in healthcare settings (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders).
This dual approach is supported by CDC guidelines, which prioritize rapid intervention to reduce the risk of seroconversion following percutaneous exposure (CDC Updated U.S. Public Health Service Guidelines for the Management of Occupational Exposures to HBV, HCV, and HIV, 2013).
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competencies 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders, 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents. CDC Updated U.S. Public Health Service Guidelines for the Management of Occupational Exposures to HBV, HCV, and HIV, 2013.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Given the formula for calculating incidence rates, the Y represents which of the following?
- A. Number of events
- B. Population served
- C. Number of infected patients
- D. Population at risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
Incidence rate is a fundamental epidemiological measure used to quantify the frequency of new cases of a disease within a specified population over a defined time period. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) supports the use of such metrics in the "Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation" domain, aligning with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) "Principles of Epidemiology in Public Health Practice" (3rd Edition, 2012). The formula provided, XY×K=Raterac{X}
{Y} imes K = RateYX×K=Rate, represents the standard incidence rate calculation, where KKK is a constant (e.g., 1,000 or 100,000) to express the rate perunit population, and the question asks what YYY represents among the given options.
In the incidence rate formula, XXX typically represents the number of new cases (or events) of the disease occurring during a specific period, and YYY represents the population at risk during that same period. The ratio XYrac{X}{Y}YX yields the rate per unit of population, which is then multiplied by KKK to standardize the rate (e.g., cases per 1,000 persons). The CDC defines the denominator (YYY) as the population at risk, which includes individuals susceptible to the disease over the observation period. Option B ("Number of infected patients") might suggest XXX if it specified new cases, but as the denominator YYY, it is incorrect because incidence focuses on new cases relative to the at-risk population, not the total number of infected individuals (which could include prevalent cases). Option C ("Population at risk") correctly aligns with YYY, representing the base population over which the rate is calculated.
Option A, "Population served," is a broader term that might include the total population under care (e.g., in a healthcare facility), but it is not specific to those at risk for new infections, making it less precise. Option D,
"Number of events," could align with XXX (new cases or events), but as the denominator YYY, it does not fit the formula's structure. The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines reinforce that the denominator in incidence rates is the population at risk, ensuring accurate measurement of new disease occurrence.
References:
CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
CDC Principles of Epidemiology in Public Health Practice, 3rd Edition, 2012.
NEW QUESTION # 58
The infection preventionist (IP) is assisting pharmacists in investigating medication contamination at the hospital's compounding pharmacy. As part of the medication recall process, the IP should:
- A. Have laboratory culture all medication.
- B. Identify the potential source of contamination.
- C. Inspect for safe injection practices.
- D. Inform all discharged patients of potential medication contamination.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario involves an infection preventionist (IP) assisting pharmacists in addressing medication contamination at the hospital's compounding pharmacy, with a focus on the medication recall process. The IP' s role is to apply infection control expertise to mitigate risks, guided by the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) principles and best practices. The recall process requires a systematic approach to identify, contain, and resolve the issue, and the "first" or most critical step must be determined.
Let's evaluate each option:
* A. Have laboratory culture all medication: Culturing all medication to confirm contamination is a valuable step to identify affected batches and guide the recall. However, this is a resource-intensive process that depends on first understanding the scope and source of the problem. Without identifying the potential source of contamination, culturing all medication could be inefficient and delay the recall.
This step is important but secondary to initial investigation.
* B. Inspect for safe injection practices: Inspecting for safe injection practices (e.g., single-use vials, proper hand hygiene, sterile technique) is a critical infection control measure, especially in compounding pharmacies where contamination often arises from procedural errors (e.g., reuse of syringes, improper cleaning). While this is a proactive step to preventfuture contamination, it addresses ongoing practices rather than the immediate recall process for the current contamination event. It is a complementary action but not the first priority.
* C. Identify the potential source of contamination: Identifying the potential source of contamination is the foundational step in the recall process. This involves investigating the compounding environment (e.
g., water quality, equipment, personnel practices), raw materials, and production processes to pinpoint where the contamination occurred (e.g., bacterial ingress, cross-contamination). The CBIC emphasizes root cause analysis as a key infection prevention strategy, enabling targeted recalls, corrective actions, and prevention of recurrence. This step is essential before culturing, inspecting, or notifying patients, making it the IP's primary responsibility in this context.
* D. Inform all discharged patients of potential medication contamination: Notifying patients is a critical step to ensure public safety and allow for medical follow-up if they received contaminated medication.
However, this action requires prior identification of the contaminated batches and their distribution, which depends on determining the source and confirming the extent of the issue. Premature notification without evidence could cause unnecessary alarm and is not the first step in the recall process.
The best answer is C, as identifying the potential source of contamination is the initial and most critical step in the medication recall process. This allows the IP to collaborate with pharmacists to trace the contamination, define the affected products, and guide subsequent actions (e.g., culturing, inspections, notifications). This aligns with CBIC's focus on systematic investigation and risk mitigation in healthcare-associated infection events.
:
CBIC Infection Prevention and Control (IPC) Core Competency Model (updated 2023), Domain III:
Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases, which includes identifying sources of contamination in healthcare settings.
CBIC Examination Content Outline, Domain V: Management and Communication, which emphasizes root cause analysis during outbreak investigations.
CDC Guidelines for Safe Medication Compounding (2022), which recommend identifying contamination sources as the first step in a recall process.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following microorganisms does NOT cause gastroenteritis in humans?
- A. Norovirus
- B. Rotavirus
- C. Coxsackievirus
- D. Rhinovirus
Answer: D
Explanation:
Gastroenteritis, characterized by inflammation of the stomach and intestines, typically presents with symptoms such as diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the identification of infectious agents in the "Identification of Infectious Disease Processes" domain, aligning with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines on foodborne and enteric diseases. The question requires identifying the microorganism among the options that does not cause gastroenteritis, necessitating an evaluation of each pathogen's clinical associations.
Option B, "Rhinovirus," is the correct answer as it does not cause gastroenteritis. Rhinoviruses are the primary cause of the common cold, affecting the upper respiratory tract and leading to symptoms like runny nose, sore throat, and cough. The CDC and WHO classify rhinoviruses as picornaviruses that replicate in the nasopharynx, with no significant evidence linking them to gastrointestinal illness in humans. Their transmission is primarily through respiratory droplets, not the fecal-oral route associated with gastroenteritis.
Option A, "Norovirus," is a well-known cause of gastroenteritis, often responsible for outbreaks of acute vomiting and diarrhea, particularly in closed settings like cruise ships or nursing homes. The CDC identifies norovirus as the leading cause of foodborne illness in the U.S., transmitted via the fecal-oral route. Option C,
"Rotavirus," is a major cause of severe diarrheal disease in infants and young children worldwide, also transmitted fecal-orally, with the CDC noting its significance before widespread vaccination reduced its impact. Option D, "Coxsackievirus," a member of the enterovirus genus, can cause gastroenteritis, particularly in children, alongside other syndromes like hand-foot-mouth disease. The CDC and clinical literature (e.g., Mandell, Douglas, and Bennett's Principles and Practice of Infectious Diseases) document its gastrointestinal involvement, though it is less common than norovirus or rotavirus.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines on enteric pathogens underscore the importance of distinguishing between respiratory and gastrointestinal pathogens for effective infection control. Rhinovirus's exclusive association with respiratory illness makes Option B the microorganism that does not cause gastroenteritis.
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Norovirus Fact Sheet, 2021.
* CDC Rotavirus Vaccination Information, 2020.
* Mandell, Douglas, and Bennett's Principles and Practice of Infectious Diseases, 9th Edition, 2019.
NEW QUESTION # 60
An outbreak of carbapenem-resistant Klebsiella pneumoniae is linked to duodenoscopes. What is the infection preventionist's PRIORITY intervention?
- A. Implement immediate enhanced reprocessing procedures and audit compliance.
- B. Conduct whole-genome sequencing of outbreak isolates.
- C. Discontinue the use of duodenoscopes until further notice.
- D. Perform targeted patient screening for Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* The CDC and FDA have identified duodenoscopes as high-risk devices due to inadequate reprocessing, leading to MDRO transmission.
* The first priority is enhancing reprocessing protocols and ensuring strict compliance with manufacturer instructions.
CBIC Infection Control References:
* APIC Text, "Endoscope Reprocessing and Infection Risk," Chapter 10.
NEW QUESTION # 61
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